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Home » GAT Subject » Aptitude Test - 15
Hassan
1.When the process issues an I/O request?
A. It is placed in an I/O queue
B. It is placed in a waiting queue
C. It is placed in the ready queue
D. It is placed in an I/O queue
2.What will happen when a process terminates?
A. It is removed from all queues
B. It is removed from all, but the job queue
C. Its process control block is de-allocated
D. It is removed from all queues
3.If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
A. full, little
B. full, lot
C. empty, little
D. full, little
4.What is a medium-term scheduler?
A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
D. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
5.What is a short-term scheduler?
A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
D. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
6.The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is?
A. The length of their queues
B. The type of processes they schedule
C. The frequency of their execution
D. The length of their queues
7.The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is?
A. Block
B. Wakeup
C. Dispatch
D. Block
8.In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes from the running state to the?
A. Blocked state
B. Ready state
C. Suspended state
D. Blocked state
9.Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed, it goes to the?
A. Running state
B. Ready state
C. Suspended state
D. Running state
10.The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain?
A. The value of the CPU registers
B. The process state
C. Memory-management information
D. The value of the CPU registers
11.Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
A. General purpose registers
B. Translation lookaside buffer
C. Program counter
D. General purpose registers
12.Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
A. A device
B. Timer
C. Scheduler process
D. A device
13.Off-flavor of milk that may be described as tasteless and the flavor of normal milk lacks in?
A. High acid
B. Rancid
C. Rancid
D. High acid
14.Flavor detected by consumption of strong feeds or weeds or milk from cows in late stages of lactation in milk?
A. Feed
B. Salty
C. Bitter
D. Feed
15.Off-flavors are detected in milk when cows eat obnoxious weeds. The flavor can be recognized by distinctive odor and taste suggested by its name?
A. Rancid
B. Garlic/onion
C. Foreign
D. Rancid
16.Off-flavor to milk due to fly spray, paint, kerosene or creosote. These Substances enter milk as direct contaminants or in vapor form?
A. Rancid
B. Foreign
C. Feed
D. Rancid
17.Off-flavor which is pungent in advanced stages and is recognized by its “papery” or cardboard sensation initially and a tallow odor in more advanced stages?
A. Malty
B. Foreign
C. Salty
D. Malty
18.This flavor similar to the flavor of stale fat and has a soapy taste and a goaty, unclean odor as a result of breaking down of fats in milk?
A. Salty
B. Garlic/onion
C. Feed
D. Salty
19.This off-flavor is rarely found except in pasteurized milk that has been stored too long or stored at slightly high refrigerator temperature?
A. Foreign
B. Unclean
C. High acid
D. Foreign
20.Milk inadequately cooled may encounter this off flavor and is caused by improperly cleaned milking machines or equipment?
A. Malty
B. Foreign
C. Feed
D. Malty
21.Removing offending from cows four hours before milking can reduce the risk of getting this off-flavor milk?
A. Bitter
B. Acid
C. Feed
D. Bitter
22.A Mastitis test appearance with a strong gel formation that tends to adhere to paddle and forms a distinct central peak would have a Leukocyte count/ml of?
A. Below 200,000
B. 150,000-500,000
C. 800,000-5,000,000
D. Below 200,000
23.While performing a CMT tests watch for color changes and gel formation. Milk from a normal quarter does which of the following?
A. Gelatinous mass clinging together in a strong reaction
B. Flows freely
C. Gel is fragile and forms small clumps in a moderate reaction
D. Gelatinous mass clinging together in a strong reaction
24.The dairy product resulting from the addition of a creaming mixture (dressing) that Contains not less than 4 percent milk fat and not more than 80 percent moisture?
A. Sorbet
B. Sherbet
C. Yogurt
D. Sorbet
25.Dairy Rations for lactating cows should be not be calculated based on?
A. Body Size
B. Milk Production
C. Stage of lactation
D. Body Size
26.Which of the following would be classified as a “Hard Cheese”?
A. Brick
B. Monterey Jack
C. Cheddar
D. Brick
27.Of the 14 cheese varieties, which has a tangy peppery flavor, is crumbly and pasty, has a white interior with veins of mold that are marbled or streaked?
A. Muenster
B. Edam/gouda
C. Swiss
D. Muenster
28.Of the listed below products, which contains no dairy ingredients?
A. Gelato
B. Sherbet
C. Custard
D. Gelato
29.As it comes from a cow, the solids portion of milk contains approximately 3.7 percent fat and percent solids-not-fat?
A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 9%
D. 3%
30.Milk contains 87 % water and the rest is solids and fats. Which of the following is not included as milk solid?
A. Protein
B. Water
C. Carbohydrate
D. Protein
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